09 April 2015


Does the right to buy create a right to sell?

A lot of the present unpleasantness about refusing to sell to someone is because there were laws requiring them to sell to anyone who walks into the shop.

Does this create a reciprocal right to demand that anyone who walks in buy something?

Don't answer that, I'm being silly.  What's the fallacy for this?  Reductio ad absurdum?

No comments:

Post a Comment

Try to remember you are a guest here when you comment. Inappropriate comments will be deleted without mention. Amnesty period is expired.